Study guide for nursing competitive exams
1. What is the primary role of a midwife? a. To deliver babies b. To provide prenatal care c. To administer medications during labor d. To perform c-sections 2. What is the recommended weight gain for a woman with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI (18.5-24.9)? a. 25-35 pounds b. 15-25 pounds c. 10-20 pounds d. 5-10 pounds 3. Which of the following is a common complication of pregnancy that can lead to preterm labor? a. Gestational diabetes b. Preeclampsia c. Placenta previa d. Ectopic pregnancy 4. What is the recommended position for a woman in labor? a. Lying on her back with her legs elevated b. Standing up c. Sitting on a birth ball d. Squatting 5. Which of the following is a non-pharmacological pain management technique for labor? a. Epidural anesthesia b. Intravenous opioids c. Lamaze breathing d. Spinal anesthesia 6. What is the recommended position for a woman to breastfeed her newborn? a. Lying on her back b. Sitting up with her back straight and her feet flat on the floor c. Lying on her side d. Standing up 7. What is the recommended duration of exclusive breastfeeding? a. 1 month b. 3 months c. 6 months d. 12 months 8. What is the recommended age for a woman to begin receiving regular mammograms for breast cancer screening? a. 30 b. 40 c. 50 d. 60 9. What is the recommended length of time for a woman to wait after giving birth before having sex? a. 1 week b. 4 weeks c. 6 weeks d. 8 weeks 10. Which of the following is not a sign of preterm labor? a. Regular contractions that increase in strength and frequency b. Vaginal bleeding c. Decreased fetal movement d. Feeling of fullness or pressure in the pelvis
2. What is the recommended weight gain for a woman with a normal pre-pregnancy BMI (18.5-24.9)?
3. Which of the following is a common complication of pregnancy that can lead to preterm labor?
4. What is the recommended position for a woman in labor?
5. Which of the following is a non-pharmacological pain management technique for labor?
6. What is the recommended position for a woman to breastfeed her newborn?
7. What is the recommended duration of exclusive breastfeeding?
8. What is the recommended age for a woman to begin receiving regular mammograms for breast cancer screening?
9. What is the recommended length of time for a woman to wait after giving birth before having sex?
10. Which of the following is not a sign of preterm labor?
1. Anuria is defined as - A) Failure to release urine B) Blood in the urine C) Excessive urine production D) Excessive urine production at night 2. Which substance does not normally pass through the glomerular capsule? A) Albumin B) Glucose C) Sodium ions D) Urea 3. Progesterone is secreted by ____ A) The mature follicle B) The ovarian follicle C) The corpus luteum D) The corpus albicans 4. Which white blood cells form antibodies? A) Neutrophils B) Basophils C) Monocytes D) B-lymphocytes 5. Which does not produce energy in the body? A) Fat B) Carbohydrate C) Protein D) Water 6. Which cells produce intrinsic factors within the stomach? A) Chief cells B) Enteroendocrine cells C) Parietal cells D) Mucous cells 7. The wandering phagocytes found in the alveoli are called - A) Goblet cells B) Alveolar macrophages C) Pulmonary cells D) Chalice cells 8. Placenta produces - A) Progesterone B) Oestrogen C) Chirionic gonadotropins D) All of the above 9. Spinal cord is continuous with which part of the brain? A) Cerebrum B) Medulla oblongata C) Midbrain D) Pons 10. How many daughter cells are produced in meiosis cell division? A) 8 B) 6 C) 4 D) 2
2. Which substance does not normally pass through the glomerular capsule?
3. Progesterone is secreted by ____
4. Which white blood cells form antibodies?
5. Which does not produce energy in the body?
6. Which cells produce intrinsic factors within the stomach?
7. The wandering phagocytes found in the alveoli are called -
8. Placenta produces -
9. Spinal cord is continuous with which part of the brain?
10. How many daughter cells are produced in meiosis cell division?
1. Route of Tuberculin test is__ A) Subcutaneous B) Intradermal route C) Intramuscular route D) Intravenous 2. Dose of tuberculin injection is__ A) 0.1 ml B) 0.2 ml C) 0.3 ml D) 0.4 ml 3. Pre-operative deep breathing and coughing exercises are to prevent mainly____ A) Bronchitis B) Hypotension C) Upper respiratory tract infection D) Atelectasis 4. Which of the following drugs can cause respiratory arrest__ A) Digoxin B) Dopamine C) Morphine D) KCL 5. A COPD patient who is hypertensive should avoid the following drug___ A) Beta blocker B) Calcium channel blocker C) ACE inhibitor D) Loop diuretics 6. Pulmonary surfactant is__ A) Lecithin B) Dipalmitoyl phosphatidylcholine C) Dipalmitoyl phosphatidyl serine D) Sphingosine 7. Swan ganz catheter___ A) Tight atrial flow B) Pulmonary capillary resistance C) Left ventricular pressure D) CVP 8. In which condition digoxin is prescribed___ A) Systolic heart failure B) Atrial fibrillation C) Atrial flutter D) All of the above 9. Best diagnostic aid to myasthenia gravis is__ A) ECG B) EMG C) Chest X-ray D) Response to IV edrophonium 10. Impotence is a feature of which of the following__ A) Multiple sclerosis B) Poliomyelitis C) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis D) Meningitis
2. Dose of tuberculin injection is__
3. Pre-operative deep breathing and coughing exercises are to prevent mainly____
4. Which of the following drugs can cause respiratory arrest__
5. A COPD patient who is hypertensive should avoid the following drug___
6. Pulmonary surfactant is__
7. Swan ganz catheter___
8. In which condition digoxin is prescribed___
9. Best diagnostic aid to myasthenia gravis is__
10. Impotence is a feature of which of the following__
1. Xerostomia means__ A) Inflamation of the stomach B) Dry mouth C) Hair loss D) Difficulty in swallowing 2. Radio-isotopes used for treatment of cancer are__ A) Isotope of cobalt B) Cesium - 137 C) Iodine - 125 D) All 3. Gradual sensorineural hearing loss that occur with aging is known as____ A) Presbycusis B) Perceptive C) Conductive D) Receptive 4. Which of the following is a diagnostic test for diagnosis of prostate cancer- A) Digital rectal examination B) Transrectal ultrasound C) PSA (Prostate specific antigen asaay) D) All of the above 5. After laryngectomy the position that should be given to patient is- A) Fowlers B) Supine C) Lateral D) Prone 6. Collapse of lung tissue is termed as__ A) Atelectasis B) Bronchiectasis C) Tracheobronchitis D) Pneumonia 7. Sudden irregular aimless involuntary movement found in rheumatic fever is known as___ A) Carditis B) Polyarthritis C) Chorea D) Ataxia 8. Cardiac tamponade is a___ A) Inflammation of heart B) Accumulation of fluid in pericardium C) Injury to cardiac valves D) None of these 9. Which of the following is the most common trisomy__ A) trisomy 18 B) trisomy 21 C) trisomy 11 D) trisomy 5 10. Action of Dopamine is__ A) Maintain BP B) Maintain pulse rate C) Maintain temprature D) Improve respiration
1. In following which disease is not transmitted mainly by Fecal-Oral route__ A) Enteric fever B) Measles C) Cholera D) Hepatitis - A 2. What is the most common cause of death due to diarrhoea__ A) Vomiting B) Dehydration C) Abdominal pain D) Lethargy 3. Total lung capacity in a newborn is____ A) 100ml B) 350ml C) 500ml D) 150ml 4. Who suggested the guidelines for the clinical diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever? A) Dr.T. Duckett Jones B) Robert Koch C) Landsteiner D) Michael Smith 5. During infancy which is the commonest cause of myocarditis? A) haemophilus influenzae B) Streptococci C) coxsackie b infection D) Pneumococci 6. In following which is a killed vaccine__ A) OPV B) BCG C) MMR D) Rabies 7. Kernicterus, which may occur as a complication of jaundice, is a pathological condition of____ A) Liver B) Brain C) Kidney D) Heart 8. In following which is a hereditary hemolytic anaemia___ A) Aplastic anaemia B) Thalassemia C) Megaloblastic anaemia D) All 9. cryptorchidism means___ A) Enlargement of testes B) Inflammation of testes C) Small testes D) Undescended testes 10. Positive Brudzinski and Kernig's sign are the symptoms of__ A) Meningitis B) Encephalitis C) Pneumonia D) Glomerulonephritis
2. What is the most common cause of death due to diarrhoea__
3. Total lung capacity in a newborn is____
4. Who suggested the guidelines for the clinical diagnosis of acute rheumatic fever?
5. During infancy which is the commonest cause of myocarditis?
6. In following which is a killed vaccine__
7. Kernicterus, which may occur as a complication of jaundice, is a pathological condition of____
8. In following which is a hereditary hemolytic anaemia___
9. cryptorchidism means___
10. Positive Brudzinski and Kernig's sign are the symptoms of__
1. Inflammation of the tongue__ A) Glossitis B) Oritis C) Chelitis D) Stomatitis 2. Food allergy occurs by a immunoglobulin__ A) IgM B) IgE C) IgD D) IgA 3. String sign is seen in____ A) Chrohn's disease B) Ulcerative colitis C) Hernia D) IBD 4. Premature ventricular contraction occur in? A) Damage to the myocardium B) Lack of oxygen C) Electrolyte imbalance D) All of the above 5. Testosterone is produced in male: A) During childhood B) Before childhood C) After years D) at puberty 6. Prophylaxis of hydrophobia is__ A) ATS B) ADS C) ARS D) TT 7. The term placenta praevia is____ A) Early development of placenta B) Early placental expulsion C) Implantation of placenta in lower uterine segment D) None 8. Thermometer was discovered by___ A) Fahrenheit B) Caryson C) Celsius D) Clement 9. Lead poisioning in children is treated by___ A) Penicilline B) EDTA C) Succimer D) BAL 10. Most commonly associated human papilloma virus with cervical cancer is? A) HPV 16 B) HPV 24 C) HPV 32 D) HPV 36
2. Food allergy occurs by a immunoglobulin__
3. String sign is seen in____
4. Premature ventricular contraction occur in?
5. Testosterone is produced in male:
6. Prophylaxis of hydrophobia is__
7. The term placenta praevia is____
8. Thermometer was discovered by___
9. Lead poisioning in children is treated by___
10. Most commonly associated human papilloma virus with cervical cancer is?
1. The dose of lignocaine used as local anesthetic in the repair of episiotomy wound is___ A) 5% 10ml B) 1% 5ml C) 1% 10ml D) 0.5% 5ml 2. In this which drug is used as urinary antiseptic A) nitrofuration B) metoclopramide C) metronidazole D) Gentamycin 3. Adrenaline is used in which kind of shock? A) Cardiogenic shock B) Septic shock C) Anaphylactic shock D) None of the above 4. Which one of the drug is fast acting anticoagulants? A) Heparin B) warfarin C) hirudin D) Vitamin K 5. Example of Glucocorticoids A) Dopamine B) Dapsone C) Prednisolone D) None of the above 6. Which of the following is a drug of choice for cardiogenic shock? A) Noradrenaline B) Dopamine C) salbutamol D) None of the above 7. In this which one is inducing sleep? A) Sedatives B) Hypnotics C) Analgesic D) Histamines 8. MORO reflex disappears by the age of___ A) 4 weeks B) 1 year C) 6 months D) 3 months 9. High protein diet is recommended in the following except___ A) Nephrotic syndrome B) Kwashiorkor C) Marasmus D) acute glomerulonephritis 10. Congestive cardiac failure may be treated with the following except____ A) Lots of fluid B) Diuretics C) Oxygen D) Digitalis
2. In this which drug is used as urinary antiseptic
3. Adrenaline is used in which kind of shock?
4. Which one of the drug is fast acting anticoagulants?
5. Example of Glucocorticoids
6. Which of the following is a drug of choice for cardiogenic shock?
7. In this which one is inducing sleep?
8. MORO reflex disappears by the age of___
9. High protein diet is recommended in the following except___
10. Congestive cardiac failure may be treated with the following except____
1. Immunity of BCG vaccination lasts: A) 10 Years B) 12 Years C) 15 Years D) 5 Years 2. When collecting specimen mouth should be washed with: A) antiseptic water B) plain water C) Hot water D) Hydrogen peroxide 3. Which one of the following is NOT a salivary gland in the human? A) parotid B) suborbital C) submaxillary D) sublingual 4. Ringing in the ear is called as___ A) Vertigo B) Dizziness C) Tinnitus D) Vibration 5. Loss of sense of smell is____ A) Anosmia B) Myopia C) parosmia D) Apnea 6. The taste buds are located along the sides of the _______ on the tongue. A) villi B) rugae C) papillae D) none of the above 7. The small intestine has 3 regions. The first region is called the: A) duodenum B) ileum C) jejunum D) colon 8. Solid waste is stored in the _____ until it is released from the body. A) anus B) rectum C) ileum D) duodenum 9. The ______ connects the pharynx to the stomach. A) esophagus B) nasal cavity C) ileum D) sigmoid colon 10. Bile is produced in the _____ and stored in the _______. A) stomach; liver B) intestine; stomach C) liver; gall bladder D) gall bladder; colon Answer keys: 1.C 2.B 3.B 4.C 5.A 6.C 7.A 8.B 9.A 10.C
2. When collecting specimen mouth should be washed with:
3. Which one of the following is NOT a salivary gland in the human?
4. Ringing in the ear is called as___
5. Loss of sense of smell is____
6. The taste buds are located along the sides of the _______ on the tongue.
7. The small intestine has 3 regions. The first region is called the:
8. Solid waste is stored in the _____ until it is released from the body.
9. The ______ connects the pharynx to the stomach.
10. Bile is produced in the _____ and stored in the _______.
Enter your email address:
